[Feb 02, 2026] 312-76 Practice Exam Dumps - 99% Marks In EC-COUNCIL Exam
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NEW QUESTION # 38
Seth wants to get an approximate picture of the likelihood of the risks that were identified by his organization.
After getting a high-level understanding of their probability, he could dedicate his resources to risk mitigation according to the priorities since he was a bit under-staffed. He was told that out of the identified risks, the occurrence of an earthquake was highly unlikely owing to the geography of their location. Furthermore, he learned that the chances of a fire breaking out in his building were high and his facility also faced a risk of physical intrusion but that was partly under control owing to the physical guards. What kind of risk assessment is Seth essentially conducting?
- A. Quantitative Risk Assessment
- B. Semi-Qualitative Risk Assessment
- C. Semi-Quantitative Risk Assessment
- D. Qualitative Risk Assessment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Qualitative Risk Assessment evaluates risks based on subjective likelihood (e.g., "high," "low") and impact, without precise numerical values, fitting Seth's high-level probability approach.
* Option A (Quantitative):Uses numerical data (e.g., percentages), not applicable here.
* Option C (Semi-Qualitative):A hybrid, but Seth's method is fully qualitative.
* Option D (Semi-Quantitative):Combines numbers with qualitative, not evident here.
* "Qualitative Risk Assessment prioritizes risks using descriptive scales (e.g., high, low) for probability and impact, ideal for resource-constrained planning" (Module: Risk Management, Section: Assessment Types).
NEW QUESTION # 39
Remus works as an IT administrator for an organization. An important aspect of his job is to ensure that physical storage space remains available in all host machines at all times. However, recently there was not much physical storage space available in one host machine, so he deleted several snapshots of thevirtual machines present. Despite the deletion, free space could not be obtained. What can Remus do to remedy this situation?
- A. Uninstall the Hypervisor
- B. Delete the child disk of the snapshots present in the host machine
- C. Delete the virtual machine database
- D. Shut down or restart the virtual machine system
Answer: B
Explanation:
In virtualization (e.g., VMware, Hyper-V), deleting snapshots may not free space if dependent child disks (differencing disks) remain. Deleting these child disks consolidates space, resolving Remus's issue.
* Option B:Deleting the VM database risks data loss, not space recovery.
* Option C (Uninstall Hypervisor):Drastic, loses all VMs.
* Option D (Shutdown/Restart):Temporary, doesn't free space.
* "Deleting child disks of snapshots in VMs consolidates storage, freeing space when snapshot deletion alone is insufficient" (Module: Virtualization and Recovery, Section: Storage Management).
NEW QUESTION # 40
Where can the VM Management Service be located in the Hyper-V architecture?
- A. Child Partition
- B. Windows Kernel
- C. Parent Partition
- D. Hypervisor Layer
Answer: C
Explanation:
In Microsoft Hyper-V architecture, the VM Management Service (part of the Hyper-V Virtual Machine Management Service, VMMS) resides in the Parent Partition, which hosts the management OS and controls virtual machines.
* Option A (Child Partition):Hosts guest VMs, not management services.
* Option C (Hypervisor Layer):Manages hardware abstraction, not services.
* Option D (Windows Kernel):Core OS component, not specific to VM management.
* "The VM Management Service in Hyper-V operates within the Parent Partition, overseeing VM creation, configuration, and operation" (Module: Virtualization and Recovery, Section: Hyper-V Architecture).
NEW QUESTION # 41
To protect against a disaster or other site-specific problem, many people choose this method to back up their media. The location can be as simple as the system administrator's home office or as sophisticated as a disaster-hardened, temperature-controlled, high-security bunker that has facilities for backup media storage.
Which type of backup method is being referred to here?
- A. Online
- B. Onsite
- C. Offsite
- D. Near-line
Answer: C
Explanation:
Offsite Backup stores data at a separate location (e.g., home or bunker) to protect against site-specific disasters, as described.
* Option A (Near-line):Intermediate storage, not offsite-specific.
* Option B (Onsite):Local, vulnerable to site issues.
* Option C (Online):Cloud-based, not necessarily physical offsite.
* "Offsite Backup safeguards data at remote locations, from simple offices to secure bunkers, against site- specific disasters" (Module: Data Backup and Recovery, Section: Backup Locations).
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following teams is responsible for the implementation and execution of the disaster recovery plan, including test plans?
- A. Technology Team
- B. Operations Team
- C. Planning Team
- D. Support Team
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Planning Team is tasked with developing, implementing, and executing the disaster recovery plan, including testing, to ensure preparedness and effectiveness.
* Option A (Operations Team):Focuses on daily operations, not DR planning.
* Option B (Support Team):Provides technical assistance, not plan execution.
* Option D (Technology Team):Manages IT systems, not the DR plan itself.
* "The Planning Team oversees the creation, implementation, and testing of the DR plan, ensuring alignment with organizational goals" (Module: Disaster Recovery Teams, Section: Roles and Responsibilities).
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following defines the communication link between a Web server and Web applications?
- A. PGP
- B. IETF
- C. Firewall
- D. CGI
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following processes helps to quantify the impact of potential threats to put a price or value on the cost of lost business functionality?
- A. Risk Avoidance
- B. Risk Reassessment
- C. Risk Analysis
- D. Risk Identification
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following terms refers to a high-speed data transmission technique that provides access to consolidated block-level storage?
- A. Storage Area Network (SAN)
- B. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
- C. Cloud Storage
- D. Storage Virtualization
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a high-speed network providing block-level access to consolidated storage, ideal for enterprise environments needing fast data transmission.
* Option A (Cloud Storage):File-based, not block-level or high-speed focused.
* Option B (NAS):File-level storage over a network, slower than SAN.
* Option C (Storage Virtualization):Abstracts storage, not a transmission technique.
* "SAN delivers high-speed, block-level storage access via a dedicated network, optimizing performance for critical applications" (Module: Storage Technologies, Section: SAN Overview).
NEW QUESTION # 46
Della works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. She is training some of the newly recruited personnel in the field of security management. She is giving a tutorial on DRP. She explains that the major goal of a disaster recovery plan is to provide an organized way to make decisions if a disruptive event occurs and asks for the other objectives of the DRP. If you are among some of the newly recruited personnel in SoftTech Inc, what will be your answer for her question?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
- A. Maximize the decision-making required by personnel during a disaster.
- B. Guarantee the reliability of standby systems through testing and simulation.
- C. Protect an organization from major computer services failure.
- D. Minimize the risk to the organization from delays in providing services.
Answer: B,C,D
NEW QUESTION # 47
Availability Management deals with the day-to-day availability of services. Which of the following takes over when a 'disaster' situation occurs?
- A. Service Continuity Management
- B. Service Reporting
- C. Service Level Management
- D. Capacity Management
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following security procedures is NOT related to the SDLC's disposition?
- A. Information preservation
- B. Security certification
- C. Media sanitation
- D. Hardware and software disposal
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 49
Will is working as a Network Administrator. Management wants to maintain a backup of all the company data as soon as it starts operations. They decide to use a RAID backup storage technology for their data backup plan. To implement the RAID data backup storage, Will sets up a pair of RAID disks so that all the data written to one disk is copied automatically to the other disk as well. This maintains an additional copy of the data. Which RAID level is used here?
- A. RAID 3
- B. RAID 5
- C. RAID 1
- D. RAID 0
Answer: C
Explanation:
RAID 1 (mirroring) duplicates data across two disks, ensuring an identical copy is maintained, as Will implemented.
* Option A (RAID 0):Striping, no redundancy.
* Option C (RAID 3):Parity with striping, not full duplication.
* Option D (RAID 5):Parity across multiple disks, not mirroring.
* "RAID 1 mirrors data across two disks, providing an exact copy for redundancy and immediate backup availability" (Module: Storage Technologies, Section: RAID Levels).
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following terms best describes the presence of any potential event that causes an undesirable impact on the organization?
- A. Risk
- B. Asset
- C. Threat
- D. Vulnerability
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following tests activates the total disaster recovery plan?
- A. Structured walk-through test
- B. Full-interruption test
- C. Checklist test
- D. Parallel test
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 52
Jack wanted to transfer his startup's data to a secure backup site. Since cost was a huge factor for him, one of his friends suggested that he should rent a server for his data from the same data center that his friend used for his organization's needs. This physical site provided cooling facilities and was cheaper as compared to other backup sites. Which of the following backup sites did Jack opt for?
- A. Hot Sites
- B. Colocation Facilities
- C. Cold Sites
- D. Warm Sites
Answer: B
Explanation:
Colocation Facilities involve renting space and infrastructure (e.g., cooling, power) in a shared data center, offering a cost-effective backup site solution, as Jack chose.
* Option A (Hot Sites):Fully operational, expensive, not cost-focused.
* Option B (Cold Sites):Basic space, no pre-installed infrastructure like cooling.
* Option C (Warm Sites):Partially equipped, more costly than colocation.
* "Colocation Facilities provide cost-efficient backup by renting shared data center resources, including cooling and security, ideal for budget-conscious organizations" (Module: Alternate Sites, Section: Site Types).
NEW QUESTION # 53
Jack was setting up BCP training for those employees in the organization who did not have a large role to play in the execution of the BCP. This training consisted of the framework, processes, and strategies involved in the plan. What is this training known as?
- A. Simulation Training
- B. Introductory Awareness Training
- C. Detailed Awareness Training
- D. Scenario Training
Answer: B
Explanation:
Introductory Awareness Training provides a basic overview of the BCP framework, processes, and strategies for employees with minimal execution roles, as Jack intended.
* Option B (Simulation):Hands-on disaster simulation, too advanced.
* Option C (Scenario):Specific scenario-based, not broad awareness.
* Option D (Detailed Awareness):In-depth, for key personnel, not basic.
* "Introductory Awareness Training educates non-core staff on BCP basics-framework, processes, and strategies-for general preparedness" (Module: Training and Awareness, Section: Training Types).
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following processes involves reducing the risk until it reaches a level acceptable to an organization?
- A. Risk Avoidance
- B. Risk Transference
- C. Risk Mitigation
- D. Risk Acceptance
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following statements are true about an APW (Air Pressurized Water) extinguisher?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. It is also known as a class C fire extinguisher.
- B. It should never be used on grease fires, electrical fires, or class D fires.
- C. It uses water and pressure to stifle the heat of fire.
- D. It is a golden color extinguisher that is filled with about 9.5 gallons (approx. 39 liters) of ordinary tap water.
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 56
Max and Carl, two partners in an organization, are considering whether to implement a standard that provides a framework of methods and processes to identify and specify all aspects for improving an organization's ICT readiness to ensure business continuity. Which standard are Max and Carl discussing?
- A. ISO 27005
- B. ISO 22313
- C. ISO 27031
- D. INCITS 483-2012
Answer: C
Explanation:
ISO 27031 focuses on ICT readiness for business continuity, providing methods to enhance IT resilience, as Max and Carl discussed.
* Option B (ISO 27005):Risk management, not ICT continuity-specific.
* Option C (ISO 22313):General BCM guidance, not ICT-focused.
* Option D (INCITS 483-2012):Virtualization security, not continuity.
* "ISO 27031 outlines processes to improve ICT readiness, ensuring IT supports business continuity effectively" (Module: Standards and Compliance, Section: ICT Continuity).
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following methods is a means of ensuring that system changes are approved before being implemented, and the implementation is complete and accurate?
- A. Documentation control
- B. Configuration auditing
- C. Configuration control
- D. Configuration identification
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following terms refers to the ability to restore data and applications that run businesses should their data centers, servers, or other infrastructure get damaged or destroyed due to a disaster?
- A. Recovery Management
- B. Data Recovery
- C. Application Recovery
- D. Disaster Recovery
Answer: D
Explanation:
Disaster Recovery (DR) encompasses restoring data, applications, and infrastructure post-disaster, ensuring business operations resume, aligning with the question's broad scope.
* Option A (Data Recovery):Limited to data, not applications or infrastructure.
* Option C (Application Recovery):Focuses only on applications.
* Option D (Recovery Management):A process, not the ability itself.
* "Disaster Recovery restores data, applications, and infrastructure after a disaster, enabling business continuity" (Module: Disaster Recovery Planning, Section: DR Definition).
NEW QUESTION # 59
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
The ___________ is concerned with rebuilding production processing and determining the criticality of data.
- A. recovery team
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 60
Pete works as a Network Security Officer for Gentech Inc. He wants to encrypt his network traffic.
The specific requirement for the encryption algorithm is that it must be a symmetric key block cipher. Which of the following techniques will he use to fulfill this requirement?
- A. AES
- B. PGP
- C. IDEA
- D. DES
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which of the following tools in Helix Windows Live is used to reveal the database password of password protected MDB files created using Microsoft Access or with Jet Database Engine?
- A. Asterisk logger
- B. Access Pass View
- C. FAU
- D. Galleta
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following is the simulation of the disaster recovery plans?
- A. Full operational test
- B. Paper test
- C. Walk-through test
- D. Preparedness test
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 63
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