New 2025 Guaranteed Success with Actual4Labs 312-76 Dumps EC-COUNCIL PDF Questions
Exceptional Practice To EC-Council Disaster Recovery Professional (EDRP) Pass the First Time
Who should take the 312-76 exam
The EC-Council Disaster Recovery Professional 312-76 Exam certification is an internationally-recognized validation that identifies persons who earn it as possessing skilled as an EC-council Certified Disaster Recovery Professional. If a candidate wants significant improvement in career growth needs enhanced knowledge, skills, and talents. The EC-Council Disaster Recovery Professional 312-76 Exam certification provides proof of this advanced knowledge and skill. If a candidate has knowledge of associated technologies and skills that are required to pass EC-Council Disaster Recovery Professional 312-76 Exam then he should take this exam.
EC-Council EDRP Exam Certification Details:
| Sample Questions | EC-Council EDRP Sample Questions |
| Duration | 240 mins |
| Passing Score | 70% |
| Number of Questions | 150 |
| Exam Code | 312-76 |
| Schedule Exam | Pearson VUE OR ECC Exam Center |
| Exam Name | EC-Council Disaster Recovery Professional (EDRP) |
| Books / Training | Courseware |
If talking about the details of the topics covered in this prerequisite exam, they are enumerated below:
- Introduction to Disaster Recovery & Business Continuity: 9%
This section covers the knowledge areas, which include the overview of disaster recovery & business continuity, disaster recovery & business continuity trends, as well as business continuity management overview. It also covers one’s understanding of the best practices & standards in risk management and disaster recovery & business continuity.
- Data Recovery Strategies: 37%
This module focuses on your understanding of the data recovery process & best practices, best practices & standards in virtualization, and disaster recovery based on virtualization. It also covers the details of the data recovery overview, centralized & decentralized computing overview, centralized backup, survivable storage systems, and data consolidation overview.
- Data Backup Strategies: 17%
This part of the test requires that the students develop their understanding of the RAID technology, data backup types, Cloud data & disaster recovery, as well as data protection continuum & best practices in the backup. It also covers their knowledge of the general overview of data backup, SAN & NAS, and infrastructure technology.
NEW QUESTION # 71
Which of the following processes is required for effective business continuity and disaster-recovery planning?
- A. Walk-through testing
- B. Business impact assessment (BIA)
- C. Preparedness testing
- D. Paper testing
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored onsite only.
- B. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only.
- C. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in floppy disks.
- D. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes.
Answer: B,D
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which of the following techniques is an encryption method that uses public-key encryption to encrypt and digitally sign e-mail messages during communication between e-mail clients?
- A. DES
- B. IDEA
- C. AES
- D. PGP
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which of the following statements is related to residual risks?
- A. It is the probabilistic risk after implementing all security measures.
- B. It is a weakness or lack of safeguard that can be exploited by a threat.
- C. It can be considered as an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability.
- D. It is the probabilistic risk before implementing all security measures.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following functions is performed by change control?
- A. It tracks changes to system hardware, software, ?rmware, and
documentation. - B. It maintains visibility of changes to the system.
- C. It ensures that changes to the system are approved.
- D. It tracks and approves changes to system hardware, software,
?rmware, and documentation.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following SSE-CMM security engineering Process Areas (PA) provides the security input?
- A. PA09
- B. PA08
- C. PA07
- D. PA06
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 77
Fill in the blank with the appropriate number:
RAID-______is a combination of RAID-1 and RAID-0.
Answer:
Explanation:
10
NEW QUESTION # 78
John wanted to transfer his organization's data to an alternate site. He wanted the alternate site to run in parallel to the primary site, which would allow his organization to continue normal business operations almost immediately in the event of a disruption. Which of the following sites is best suited to John's requirements?
- A. Cold Site
- B. Hot Site
- C. Colocation Facilities
- D. Warm Site
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Hot Site is a fully operational alternate site with duplicated systems and data, running in parallel to the primary site. It allows immediate failover and continuity of operations with minimal downtime, meeting John' s need for near-instant resumption.
* Option A (Cold Site):A basic facility with power and space, requiring significant setup time.
* Option B (Warm Site):Partially equipped, with some pre-installed systems, but not fully operational in real time.
* Option D (Colocation Facilities):Shared data centers, not inherently designed for immediate failover.
* "Hot Sites are fully redundant, mirrored environments that operate concurrently with primary sites, ensuring zero to minimal downtime during failover, ideal for critical operations" (Module: Alternate Sites, Section: Site Types).
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following processes measures the maturity level of the security program?
- A. Risk analysis
- B. Risk assessment
- C. GAP analysis
- D. Risk mitigation
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which of the following is a virtualization standard specified by the Distributed Management Task Force (DMTF)?
- A. Open Virtualization Format (OVF)
- B. vCloud API
- C. PCI Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)
- D. Cloud Security Alliance (CSA)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Open Virtualization Format (OVF) is a standard developed by the Distributed Management Task Force (DMTF) for packaging and distributing virtual machines and software. It ensures interoperability across virtualization platforms, making it a key virtualization standard.
* Option A (PCI DSS):A security standard for payment cards, not virtualization-related.
* Option B (CSA):An organization, not a standard, focused on cloud security.
* Option C (vCloud API):A VMware-specific API, not a DMTF standard.
* "The Open Virtualization Format (OVF), established by the DMTF, standardizes virtual machine packaging for portability and compatibility across platforms" (Module: Virtualization and Cloud Computing, Section: Virtualization Standards).
NEW QUESTION # 81
To protect against a disaster or other site-specific problem, many people choose this method to back up their media. The location can be as simple as the system administrator's home office or as sophisticated as a disaster-hardened, temperature-controlled, high-security bunker that has facilities for backup media storage.
Which type of backup method is being referred to here?
- A. Offsite
- B. Online
- C. Near-line
- D. Onsite
Answer: A
Explanation:
Offsite Backup stores data at a separate location (e.g., home or bunker) to protect against site-specific disasters, as described.
* Option A (Near-line):Intermediate storage, not offsite-specific.
* Option B (Onsite):Local, vulnerable to site issues.
* Option C (Online):Cloud-based, not necessarily physical offsite.
* "Offsite Backup safeguards data at remote locations, from simple offices to secure bunkers, against site- specific disasters" (Module: Data Backup and Recovery, Section: Backup Locations).
NEW QUESTION # 82
In which scenario training phase is a debrief conducted with the participants to obtain more feedback?
- A. Review Phase
- B. Warning Phase
- C. Execution Phase
- D. Planning Phase
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Review Phase of scenario training occurs after execution and involves a debrief with participants to gather feedback, assess performance, and identify improvements. This aligns with the question's focus on obtaining feedback post-training.
* Option A (Execution Phase):The active running of the scenario, no debrief yet.
* Option C (Warning Phase):Not a standard phase; implies pre-event alerts.
* Option D (Planning Phase):Prepares the scenario, not for feedback collection.
* "The Review Phase follows scenario execution, involving a debrief to collect participant feedback and refine the training process" (Module: Training and Awareness, Section: Training Phases).
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of the following phases is the first step towards creating a business continuity plan?
- A. Business Impact Assessment
- B. Business Continuity Plan Development
- C. Scope and Plan Initiation
- D. Plan Approval and Implementation
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 84
Peter works as a Technical Representative in a CSIRT for SecureEnet Inc. His team is called to investigate the computer of an employee, who is suspected for classified data theft. Suspect's computer runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He knows that in Windows operating system, the data is searched in pre-defined steps for proper and efficient analysis. Which of the following is the correct order for searching data on a Windows based system?
- A. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, internet traces
- B. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, internet traces
- C. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
- D. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 85
In risk analysis, which of the following can be identified as a consequence of a disaster?
- A. Loss of competitive edge
- B. Loss of stockholder confidence
- C. Loss of goodwill
- D. Loss of operating capability
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following governance bodies provides management, operational, and technical controls to satisfy the security requirements?
- A. Information Security Steering Committee
- B. Chief Information Security Officer
- C. Business Unit Manager
- D. Senior Management
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following is NOT a component of a centralized governance structure for Business Continuity and Risk Management?
- A. Enablement
- B. Effectiveness
- C. Programs and Practices
- D. Authenticity
Answer: D
Explanation:
A centralized governance structure for Business Continuity and Risk Management typically includes Programs and Practices (strategies and processes), Enablement (resources and support), and Effectiveness (measuring outcomes). Authenticity, while important in security, is not a standard governance component.
* Option A:Core to defining continuity practices.
* Option B:Ensures implementation support.
* Option C:Evaluates governance success.
* "Centralized governance includes Programs and Practices, Enablement, and Effectiveness to ensure robust continuity; Authenticity is not a structural component" (Module: Governance Structures, Section: BC Governance).
NEW QUESTION # 88
The Incident handling process implemented in an enterprise is responsible to deal with all the incidents regarding the enterprise. Which of the following procedures will be involved by the preparation phase of the Incident handling process?
- A. Building up an incident response kit
- B. Setting up the initial position after an incident
- C. Working with QA to validate security of the enterprise
- D. Organizing a solution to remove an incident
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 89
Fill in the blank with the appropriate number:
RAID-________ is a combination of RAID-1 and RAID-0.
Answer:
Explanation:
10
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which of the following individuals incorporates risk assessment in training programs for the organization's personnel?
- A. Security awareness trainer
- B. Functional manager
- C. Information system security officer
- D. Chief information officer
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following BCP teams deals with the key decision making and guides recovery teams and business personnel?
- A. Damage assessment team
- B. Off-site storage team
- C. Emergency action team
- D. Emergency management team
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 92
Jack was setting up BCP training for those employees in the organization who did not have a large role to play in the execution of the BCP. This training consisted of the framework, processes, and strategies involved in the plan. What is this training known as?
- A. Introductory Awareness Training
- B. Scenario Training
- C. Simulation Training
- D. Detailed Awareness Training
Answer: A
Explanation:
Introductory Awareness Training provides a basic overview of the BCP framework, processes, and strategies for employees with minimal execution roles, as Jack intended.
* Option B (Simulation):Hands-on disaster simulation, too advanced.
* Option C (Scenario):Specific scenario-based, not broad awareness.
* Option D (Detailed Awareness):In-depth, for key personnel, not basic.
* "Introductory Awareness Training educates non-core staff on BCP basics-framework, processes, and strategies-for general preparedness" (Module: Training and Awareness, Section: Training Types).
NEW QUESTION # 93
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