Pass Your Exam Easily! 156-315.81 Real Question Answers Updated on Mar 20, 2026
Actual Questions Answers Pass With Real 156-315.81 Exam Dumps
The Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 Certification Exam is an essential certification for professionals who want to validate their expertise in Check Point's latest security technology. Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge and skills in managing and securing Check Point products. Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification is recognized globally and is highly valued by organizations that use Check Point products. Passing the CheckPoint 156-315.81 certification exam can open doors to new career opportunities and improve the candidate's earning potential.
The Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification exam consists of multiple-choice questions and performance-based questions, which are designed to test the candidate's understanding of the concepts and their ability to implement them in real-world scenarios. 156-315.81 exam is conducted online and can be taken from anywhere with an internet connection. 156-315.81 exam duration is 120 minutes, and the passing score is 70%.
NEW QUESTION # 316
You want to gather data and analyze threats to your mobile device. It has to be a lightweight app. Which application would you use?
- A. Sandblast Mobile Protect
- B. SecuRemote
- C. SmartEvent Client Info
- D. Check Point Capsule Cloud
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
SandBlast Mobile Protect is an application that provides comprehensive protection for mobile devices against cyber threats. SandBlast Mobile Protect is a lightweight app that does not affect the device performance or battery life. It monitors network traffic, device behavior, and installed apps to detect and prevent attacks such as phishing, malware, ransomware, botnets, and man-in-the-middle5. SandBlast Mobile Protect also integrates with Check Point's ThreatCloud intelligence network to provide real-time threat information and updates6.
Therefore, the correct answer is B.
References: 5: [SandBlast Mobile Protect] 6: [SandBlast Mobile Administration Guide]
NEW QUESTION # 317
Within the Check Point Firewall Kernel resides Chain Modules, which are individually responsible for the inspection of a specific blade or feature that has been enabled in the configuration of the gateway. For Wire mode configuration, chain modules marked with _______ will not apply.
- A. 00000002
- B. 00000003
- C. 00000001
- D. ffffffff
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
For Wire mode configuration, chain modules marked with 00000001 will not apply. Wire mode is a special configuration that allows a Security Gateway to pass traffic without inspection, acting as a bridge between two network segments. In Wire mode, only chain modules that are essential for basic functionality are applied, such as VPN, QoS, ClusterXL, and SecureXL. Chain modules that are related to inspection-based Software Blades, such as Firewall, IPS, Application Control, and so on, are skipped. The chain modules that are skipped are marked with 00000001 in the output of fw ctl chain command. References: Wire Mode
NEW QUESTION # 318
What is the recommended configuration when the customer requires SmartLog indexing for 14 days and SmartEvent to keep events for 180 days?
- A. Choose different setting for log storage and SmartEvent db
- B. Use Multi-Domain Management Server.
- C. Install Management and SmartEvent on different machines.
- D. it is not possible.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The recommended configuration when the customer requires SmartLog indexing for 14 days and SmartEvent to keep events for 180 days is to install Management and SmartEvent on different machines. This is because SmartLog and SmartEvent use different databases and storage methods, and having them on separate machines allows for better performance and scalability. Reference: [SmartLog Administration Guide]
NEW QUESTION # 319
What is the limitation of employing Sticky Decision Function?
- A. With SDF enabled, the involved VPN Gateways only supports IKEv1
- B. With SDF enabled, you can only have three Sync interfaces at most
- C. Acceleration technologies, such as SecureXL and CoreXL are disabled when activating SDF
- D. With SDF enabled, only ClusterXL in legacy mode is supported
Answer: C
Explanation:
Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is a feature that ensures that VPN traffic is handled by the same core on a Security Gateway with multiple CPU cores. This improves the performance and stability of VPN tunnels by avoiding out-of-order packets and reducing encryption overhead. However, the limitation of employing SDF is that acceleration technologies, such as SecureXL and CoreXL are disabled when activating SDF. This means that SDF may reduce the overall throughput and scalability of the Security Gateway. Therefore, SDF should be used only when necessary and only on gateways that are dedicated to VPN traffic. Reference: R81 Performance Tuning Administration Guide
NEW QUESTION # 320
By default how often updates are checked when the CPUSE Software Updates Policy is set to Automatic?
- A. Seven times per day
- B. Six times per day
- C. Every two hours
- D. Every three hours
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/ html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/112109
NEW QUESTION # 321
Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?
- A. vpn tu tlist
- B. vpn tu
- C. cpview
- D. cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf
Answer: A
Explanation:
The command vpn tu tlist shows detailed information about VPN tunnels, such as the peer IP address, encryption domain, IKE phase 1 and phase 2 status, encryption algorithm, and tunnel uptime. The command vpn tu is an interactive tool that allows users to list, delete, or reconnect VPN tunnels. The command cpview is a real-time performance monitoring tool that shows various statistics about the system and network.
References: VPN Administration Guide, SK97638 - What is cpview Utility and How to Use it
NEW QUESTION # 322
In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Wire Mode configuration, chain modules marked with
____________ will not apply.
- A. 0
- B. ffff
- C. 1
- D. 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Wire Mode configuration, chain modules marked with 1 will not apply, as they are related to NAT, VPN, or other features that are not supported in Wire Mode. Wire Mode is a mode of operation that allows transparent traffic forwarding without any inspection or modification by the firewall. References: Check Point Security Expert R81 Course, Wire Mode Configuration Guide
NEW QUESTION # 323
In which formats can Threat Emulation forensics reports be viewed in?
- A. PDF and TXT
- B. PDF, HTML, and XML
- C. TXT, XML and CSV
- D. PDF and HTML
Answer: B
Explanation:
The formats in which Threat Emulation forensics reports can be viewed in are PDF, HTML, and XML. Threat Emulation is a feature that detects and prevents zero-day attacks by emulating files in a sandbox environment and analyzing their behavior. Threat Emulation generates forensics reports that provide detailed information about the emulated files, such as verdict, severity, activity summary, screenshots, network activity, registry activity, file activity, and process activity. These reports can be viewed in PDF, HTML, or XML formats from SmartConsole or SmartView.
NEW QUESTION # 324
You can access the ThreatCloud Repository from:
- A. Threat Wiki and Check Point Website
- B. Threat Prevention and Threat Tools
- C. R81.20 SmartConsole and Threat Prevention
- D. R81.20 SmartConsole and Application Wiki
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the Check Point R81 release notes, you can access the ThreatCloud Repository from R81.20 SmartConsole and Threat Prevention. The ThreatCloud Repository is a cloud-based service that provides real-time threat intelligence and updates to Check Point products. The other options are either outdated or nonexistent. References: Check Point R81
NEW QUESTION # 325
Which command would you use to set the network interfaces' affinity in Manual mode?
- A. sim affinity -a
- B. sim affinity -m
- C. sim affinity -l
- D. sim affinity -s
Answer: D
Explanation:
The command that would be used to set the network interfaces' affinity in Manual mode is sim affinity -s. Sim affinity is a command that allows administrators to view and modify the CPU core affinity of network interfaces and SecureXL instances. Core affinity is a feature that binds network interfaces and SecureXL instances to specific CPU cores, which improves the performance and load balancing of the Security Gateway. Sim affinity -s sets the network interfaces' affinity in Manual mode, which means that administrators can manually assign network interfaces to CPU cores. The other options are either invalid or perform different functions.
NEW QUESTION # 326
Which Check Point daemon monitors the other daemons?
- A. cpwd
- B. fwm
- C. fwssd
- D. cpd
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Check Point daemon that monitors the other daemons is cpwd (Check Point Watchdog). It is responsible for monitoring the health and status of various Check Point daemons and processes running on the Security Gateway. If any daemon or process stops responding or encounters an issue, cpwd can restart it to ensure the continued operation of the Security Gateway.
NEW QUESTION # 327
Which command shows only the table names of all kernel tables?
- A. fw tab -s
- B. fw tab -n
- C. fw tab -k
- D. fwtab-t
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 328
How often does Threat Emulation download packages by default?
- A. Twice per day
- B. Once a week
- C. Once an hour
- D. Once per day
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Threat Emulation downloads packages by default once per day. The packages contain updates for the Threat Emulation engine, signatures, and images. The download frequency can be changed in the Threat Prevention policy settings. References: Threat Emulation Administration Guide, Threat Prevention R81 Release Notes
NEW QUESTION # 329
Which is the correct order of a log flow processed by SmartEvent components?
- A. Firewall > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Client
- B. Firewall > Log Server > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client
- C. Firewall > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Client
- D. Firewall > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct order of a log flow processed by SmartEvent components is: Firewall > Log Server > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client. The Firewall generates logs for traffic and security events. The Log Server receives and stores the logs from the Firewall. The Correlation Unit analyzes the logs and generates SmartEvent events based on predefined or custom rules. The SmartEvent Server Database stores the events generated by the Correlation Unit. The SmartEvent Client displays the events and reports from the SmartEvent Server Database. Reference: : Check Point Resource Library, Certified Security Expert (CCSE) R81.20 Course Overview, page 12; : Check Point Software, Training & Certification, SmartEvent Introduction.
NEW QUESTION # 330
Bob works for a big security outsourcing provider company and as he receives a lot of change requests per day he wants to use for scripting daily tasks the API services (torn Check Point for the GAIA API. Firstly he needs to be aware if the API services are running for the GAIA operating system. Which of the following Check Point Command is true:
- A. gala_api status
- B. api_gala status
- C. gala_dlish status
- D. status gaiaapi
Answer: A
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/latest/GaiaAPIs/#api_access~v1.7%20 The correct Check Point command to check if the API services are running for the GAIA operating system is gala_api status. The gala_api command is used to manage the API services in the GAIA operating system, and the status option is used to check the status of the API services.
NEW QUESTION # 331
Which of the following is NOT a valid type of SecureXL template?
- A. Drop Template
- B. Deny template
- C. Accept Template
- D. NAT Template
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The type of SecureXL template that is not valid among the options is Deny template. SecureXL templates are pre-allocated data structures that store information about connections that match certain criteria. They are used to accelerate the processing of packets that belong to those connections. The valid types of SecureXL templates are Accept, Drop, NAT, and Crypt. The Accept template is used for connections that are allowed by the Firewall policy. The Drop template is used for connections that are blocked by the Firewall policy. The NAT template is used for connections that require Network Address Translation. The Crypt template is used for connections that require encryption or decryption. References: [SecureXL Templates]
NEW QUESTION # 332
Return oriented programming (ROP) exploits are detected by which security blade?
- A. Application control
- B. Check Point Anti-Virus / Threat Emulation
- C. Data Loss Prevention
- D. Intrusion Prevention Software
Answer: B
Explanation:
Return-oriented programming (ROP) exploits are detected by Check Point Anti-Virus / Threat Emulation blade. ROP exploits are a type of code reuse attack that bypasses common exploit mitigation techniques such as Data Execution Prevention (DEP) and Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR). Check Point Anti- Virus / Threat Emulation blade can detect and prevent ROP exploits using its behavioral analysis engine that monitors the execution flow of processes and identifies malicious patterns. References: [Check Point Security Expert R81 Threat Prevention Administration Guide], page 17.
NEW QUESTION # 333
Fill in the blank: __________ information is included in "Full Log" tracking option, but is not included in "Log" tracking option?
- A. Destination port
- B. Application
- C. Data type
- D. File attributes
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Full Log tracking option includes more information than the Log tracking option, such as the data type of the traffic. The data type indicates the type of content that was transferred, such as text, image, video, or audio. The data type can be used for filtering and reporting purposes. The Log tracking option only includes basic information, such as source, destination, service, action, and time.
NEW QUESTION # 334
What command can you use to have cpinfo display all installed hotfixes?
- A. cpinfo installed_jumbo
- B. cpinfo -get hf
- C. cpinfo -hf
- D. cpinfo -y all
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 335
What is the purpose of extended master key extension/session hash?
- A. In case of TLS1.x it is a prevention of a Man-in-the-Middle attack/disclosure of the client-server communication
- B. Supplement DLP data watermark
- C. UDP VOIP protocol extension
- D. Special TCP handshaking extension
Answer: A
Explanation:
The extended master key extension/session hash is a feature introduced in TLS 1.3 to prevent a Man-in-the- Middle attack/disclosure of the client-server communication. It works by generating a unique session hash for each connection, which is derived from the master key and other parameters. This session hash is then used to authenticate the application data and the end-of-handshake messages, ensuring that no one can tamper with or eavesdrop on the communication. References: Check Point Security Expert R81 Course, TLS 1.3 RFC
NEW QUESTION # 336
What destination versions are supported for a Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade?
- A. R76 and later
- B. R70 and Later
- C. R81.10 and Later
- D. R81.40 and later
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 337
As a valid Mobile Access Method, what feature provides Capsule Connect/VPN?
- A. Full Layer3 VPN -IPSec VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.
- B. Fill Layer4 VPN -SSL VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.
- C. You can make sure that documents are sent to the intended recipients only.
- D. That is used to deploy the mobile device as a generator of one-time passwords for authenticating to an RSA Authentication Manager.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The feature that provides Full Layer3 VPN -IPSec VPN, giving users network access to all mobile applications, is the correct answer.
Capsule Connect/VPN is used to establish secure VPN connections for mobile devices, and the Full Layer3 VPN (IPSec VPN) option provides comprehensive network access.
NEW QUESTION # 338
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The Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification is designed for individuals who have a deep understanding of security policies, advanced routing and network configurations, and the deployment of Check Point Security Gateway in complex environments. Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification validates an individual's ability to manage and deploy Check Point Security Gateway and Management Software Blades in a production environment, ensuring that the network is protected against various types of cyber threats.
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