[Feb 21, 2024] Reliable CTFL_Syll2018 Exam Tips Test Pdf Exam Material
New 2024 CTFL_Syll2018 Test Tutorial (Updated 355 Questions)
The CTFL_Syll2018 exam covers a wide range of topics, including software testing fundamentals, testing throughout the software development lifecycle, static techniques, test design techniques, and test management. CTFL_Syll2018 exam is divided into 40 multiple choice questions and candidates have 60 minutes to complete the exam. To pass the exam, candidates need to score at least 65% or 26 out of 40.
ISQI CTFL_Syll2018 certification is highly valued in the software testing industry, and it opens up various career opportunities for the candidates. ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) certification demonstrates the candidate's commitment towards their profession and their willingness to learn and improve. With the increasing demand for software testers, the certification can help the candidates to stand out from the crowd and increase their chances of getting hired.
NEW QUESTION # 202
Which of the following defects-can
- A. Undefined variables
- B. Wrong business rules
- C. Syntax errors of the code
- D. Infinite loops
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Wrong business rules are defects that cannot be found by static analysis tools, because they are logical or functional errors that depend on the context and requirements of the software13. A static analysis tool can only detect syntactic or structural errors in the code or design of the software under test, but not whether they match the intended business rules or logic13. The other options are defects that can be found by static analysis tools. Option A is a defect that can be found by a static analysis tool, because it is a structural error that causes the code to loop indefinitely without terminating13. Option C is a defect that can be found by a static analysis tool, because it is a syntactic error that causes the code to fail to compile or run13. Option D is a defect that can be found by a static analysis tool, because it is a structural error that indicates a waste of memory or a possible logic flaw
NEW QUESTION # 203
Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]
- A. Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards
- B. Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code
- C. Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards
- D. Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A limitation in the use of static analysis tools is C. Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards. Static analysis tools are tools that analyze the code or other software artifacts without executing them, and report any defects, errors, vulnerabilities, or violations of coding standards or conventions. Static analysis tools can help to improve the quality and maintainability of the code or other software artifacts. However, static analysis tools also have some limitations, such as generating large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards or conventions. This can make it difficult for developers or testers to identify and prioritize the most important or critical issues to fix or address. A detailed explanation of static analysis tools can be found in A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus, pages 109-1101.
NEW QUESTION # 204
The following sentences refer to the Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).
Which sentence is correct?
- A. The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard
- B. Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development
- C. Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization
- D. This test plan outline is relevant for military projects For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The 'Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829) is a standard that defines a set of documents that can be used to document the test process and its outcomes. The standard provides an outline for each document, specifying its purpose, content, and format. However, the standard does not prescribe how to apply it in different contexts or projects. It is up to each organization or project to decide how to adapt the standard to their specific needs and situation. Therefore, the standard is not a rigid or mandatory requirement that must be followed strictly by all testers. Rather, it is a flexible and adaptable guideline that can be used as a reference or a starting point for creating test documentation regimes. You can find more information about IEEE 829 and test documentation in A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus, Chapter
51.
NEW QUESTION # 205
A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer
- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.
- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15
- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur.
Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?
- A. 1-2000-5001-10000
- B. 0-100-2000-6000
- C. 0-1999-2000-5000
- D. 99-1- 2000- 4999,99
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The requirement given in the image specifies the charge for a money transfer based on the amount of money transferred.
The amount can be anywhere from 1 to 5000 euros, with different charges applied for different ranges of amounts.
To test this requirement, we can use equivalence partitioning, which is a specification-based test technique that involves dividing the input or output values into groups or partitions that are expected to be treated in the same way by the system under test. For example, based on the requirement, we can identify the following equivalence partitions for the input amount:
EP1: Amount < 1 (invalid)
EP2: 1 <= Amount <= 1999 (valid, charge = 10 euros)
EP3: 2000 <= Amount <= 5000 (valid, charge = 15 euros)
EP4: Amount > 5000 (invalid)
The set of amounts that covers all equivalence partitions is C. 0-100-2000-6000. This set of amounts includes one value from each equivalence partition and ensures that all possible scenarios are tested. For example:
TC1: Amount = 0 -> Invalid input
TC2: Amount = 100 -> Valid input, charge = 10 euros
TC3: Amount = 2000 -> Valid input, charge = 15 euros
TC4: Amount = 6000 -> Invalid input
The other sets of amounts do not cover all equivalence partitions because they either include values that belong to the same partition or exclude values that belong to different partitions. For example:
A). 0-1999-2000-5000 -> This set of amounts does not cover all equivalence partitions because it includes two values that belong to EP2 (1999 and 2000) and excludes any value that belongs to EP3.
B). 1-2000-5001-10000 -> This set of amounts does not cover all equivalence partitions because it includes two values that belong to EP4 (5001 and 10000) and excludes any value that belongs to EP2.
D). 99-1-2000-4999.99 -> This set of amounts does not cover all equivalence partitions because it includes a value that is not an integer (4999.99), which violates the assumption that only integer values can occur.
You can find more information about equivalence partitioning in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], Chapter 4, Section 4.2.
NEW QUESTION # 206
Refer to the exhibit
Given the following State Transition diagram, match the test cases below with the relevant set of state transitions.
(i)X-Z-V-W
(ii)W-Y-U-U
- A. (i) = S1 - S2 - S3 - S4 - S2 and (ii) = S4 - S2 - S4 - S4 - S4
- B. (i) = S1 - S2 - S3 - S4 - S4 and (ii) = S2 -S4 - S4 - S4 - S2
- C. (i) = S2 - S3 - S4 - S2 - S2 and (ii) = S4 - S2 - S4 - S4 - S4
- D. (i) = S2 - S3 - S4 - S4 - S2 and (ii) = S2 -S3 - S4 -S4 - S4
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 207
Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]
- A. Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect
- B. Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect
- C. Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect
- D. Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect. Debugging is the process of finding and fixing defects in a software product by analyzing its code or behavior. Debugging is usually performed by developers who have access to and knowledge of the code or structure of the software product. Debugging involves locating and correcting defects identified by testers during testing activities, and verifying that the correction has cleared the original defect without introducing new defects. Testers can also participate in debugging by providing information about how to reproduce defects, what are the expected results, what are the actual results, etc., and by confirming that defects have been fixed after debugging. A detailed explanation of debugging can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], page 6.
NEW QUESTION # 208
Given the following review types and review characteristics:
a. Pair review
b. Walkthrough
c. Technical review
d. Inspection
1. Formal
2. Inlornial
3. Purpose includes gaining consensus
4. Purposes include improving the software product and training the review participants Which of the following BEST matches the review type with the review/ characteristic?
- A. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
- B. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
- C. a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
- D. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct matching of the review types with the review characteristics is as follows:
Pair review: Informal (2)
Walkthrough: Purpose includes gaining consensus (3)
Technical review: Purposes include improving the software product and training the review participants (4) Inspection: Formal (1) Therefore, option C is the correct answer. Options A, B, and D are incorrect, as they do not match the review types with the review characteristics correctly.
References: Section 3.2.1
NEW QUESTION # 209
In a system designed to work out the employee tax to be paid:
_ An employee has $4,000 of salary tax free.
_ The next $1,500 is taxed at 10%.
_ The next $28,000 after that is taxed at 22%.
_ Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
Which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
- A. $28,000
- B. $33,501
- C. $5,000
- D. $1,500
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 210
Which statement about use case testing is true?
- A. The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers
- B. The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.
- C. The test cases are always designed by customers or end users
- D. The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Use case testing is a specification-based test technique that is based on the use cases or scenarios that describe how users interact with the system under test. Use case testing aims to find defects in the process flow or functionality of the system under test by verifying that it behaves as expected according to the use cases or scenarios. Use case testing does not require any knowledge of the data flow or structure of the system under test; it only focuses on what the system does rather than how it does it. Use case testing can be done by professional testers or real users, depending on the level and purpose of testing. Use case testing can also be designed by customers or end users, developers, testers, analysts, or anyone who has access to the use case specifications or user requirements. You can find more information about use case testing in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], Chapter 4, Section 4.2.
NEW QUESTION # 211
Given the following state transition diagram where SS is the start state:
Which of the following answers describes a test case that only uses valid transitions to exercise all states, using the minimum number of transitions?
- A. SS-S1-S3-S2.
- B. SS-S3-SS-S1-S3-S2.
- C. SS-S3-S2-S1.
- D. SS-S1-S2-S3.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the syllabus, state transition testing is a technique that tests the behaviour of a system or component based on its transitions between states. A state transition diagram is a graphical representation of the states and transitions of a system or component. A test case that uses valid transitions to exercise all states should cover all the nodes and edges in the diagram. The answer D is correct because it covers all the four states (SS, S1, S2, S3) and all the five transitions (SS-S1, S1-S3, S3-S2, S2-SS, SS-S3) in the diagram. The other answers are incorrect because they either miss some states or transitions or use more transitions than necessary.
References: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 4.4.1, page 47-48.
NEW QUESTION # 212
Which of the following is a task of the Test Analysis and Design activity of the test process?
- A. Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared
- B. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly
- C. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning
- D. Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The Test Analysis and Design activity of the test process is the activity where test conditions and test cases are identified and specified based on the test objectives and criteria. The Test Analysis and Design activity also involves identifying and preparing the necessary test data and test environment to support the test execution.
Some of the tasks of the Test Analysis and Design activity are:
Reviewing the test basis: This task involves reviewing the requirements, specifications, design documents, or other sources of information that form the basis for testing.
Identifying test conditions: This task involves identifying what needs to be tested based on the test basis and objectives.
Designing and prioritizing test cases: This task involves designing specific scenarios or steps to verify each test condition and assigning priorities to them based on their importance or risk level.
Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases: This task involves identifying what data is needed to execute each test case and how to obtain or generate it.
Identifying and preparing the test environment: This task involves identifying what hardware, software, network, data, tools, etc., are needed to execute the test cases and how to set up and maintain them.
Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared is not a task of the Test Analysis and Design activity because it does not involve identifying or specifying anything related to testing.
Rather, it is a task of the Test Monitoring and Control activity, which involves measuring and reporting the progress and status of testing against the planned activities and criteria. You can find more information about the Test Analysis and Design activity in A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus, Chapter 31.
NEW QUESTION # 213
Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between test planning and test execution? [K2]
- A. Test planning schedules test execution but does not assign resources
- B. Test planning defines the overall approach to testing but does not schedule specific activities such as test
execution - C. Test planning ensures the level of detail in test procedures is appropriate for test execution
- D. Test planning identifies test objectives related to scope and risk but does not define the level of detail for
test procedures used in test execution
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 214
You are examining a document which gives the precise steps needed in order to execute a test.
What is the correct definition of this document?
- A. Test case specification
- B. Test condition
- C. Test procedure specification
- D. Test design specification
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 215
Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]
- A. Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in the system
- B. Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.
- C. Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate on the interactions between different parts of a system
- D. Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high level model of system behaviour
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 216
Consider the following pseudo-code
How many minimum test cases are required to cover 100% Statement coverage and Decision coverage?
- A. 8 for Statement, 6 for Decision
- B. 5 for Statement, 5 for Decision
- C. 4 for Statement, 5 for Decision
- D. 6 for Statement, 8 for Decision
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
To cover 100% statement coverage, we need to execute every statement in the code at least once. To cover
100% decision coverage, we need to execute every branch in the code at least once. The minimum number of test cases required to achieve both statement and decision coverage is 4 for statement and 5 for decision. Here is one possible set of test cases:
| Test Case | Input | Output | Statement Coverage | Decision Coverage | | TC1 | Walking = True, Midnight = False, Raining = False, Running = False | Take umbrella | S1, S2, S3, S4, S5 | D1-T, D2-T | | TC2 | Walking = False, Midnight = True, Raining = False, Running = False | Search light | S1, S2, S6, S7 | D1-F, D3-T | | TC3 | Walking = False, Midnight = False, Raining = True, Running = False | Take umbrella and search light | S1, S2, S6, S8, S9 | D1-F, D3-F, D4-T | | TC4 | Walking = False, Midnight = False, Raining = False, Running = True | Keep doing what you were doing | S1, S2, S6, S8, S10 | D1-F, D3-F, D4-F |
NEW QUESTION # 217
Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?
- A. The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring
- B. The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it
- C. The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring
- D. The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The level of risk is determined by multiplying the impact of an adverse event by the likelihood of that event occurring1 . The impact of an adverse event is the degree of harm or loss that would result from the event, such as financial loss, reputation damage, legal consequences, or safety hazards1 . The likelihood of an adverse event is the probability or frequency of the event happening, based on historical data, expert judgement, or statistical analysis1 . The other options are not correct formulas for calculating risk. Option A confuses the cost of preventing an adverse event with its impact. Option B confuses the cost of possible legal action with its likelihood. Option D uses two synonyms for likelihood (probability and frequency) instead of combining it with impact.
NEW QUESTION # 218
Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]
- A. Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has
cleared the original defect - B. Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the
original defect - C. Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared
the original defect - D. Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction
has cleared the original defect
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 219
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